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Why does King George use the first person plural possessive "our enemies" in his
speech? How is this different than if he would have said "Britain's enemies"? Explain.

Answer :

Аноним Аноним

Today at 5:13 AM

Answer: When he uses the phrase our enemies he is conveying that the enemies is a threat to everyone not just to Britain making the enemies sound more dangerous, and a bigger threat to the people. However, if he had said Britain's enemies it would seem that the danger is only to Britain making them see as less of a threat.

Explanation:

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